Daily Exam Programmer Paper- II (30-06-2024)

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Q 1:

Error report is an example of

(1) Process
(2) Output process
(3) Input process
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Output process

Q 2: SRS stands for:
(1) Software Requirement Specification
(2) Software Requirement Standard
(3) System Requirement Standard
(4) Software Requirement Set
Correct Answer: Software Requirement Specification

Q 3: RAD Model is not suitable when-
(1) Technical risks are high
(2) Testing is not needed
(3) Technical risks are high and testing is not needed
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Technical risks are high

Q 4: The primary tool used in structured design is a :
(1) Structure chart
(2) Data-flow diagram
(3) Program flow chart
(4) Module
Correct Answer: Structure chart

Q 5: The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software engineering is
(1) ISO 9000 : 2004
(2) ISO 9001 : 2000
(3) ISO 9002 : 2001
(4) ISO 9003 : 2004
Correct Answer: ISO 9001 : 2000

Q 6: Incidents would not be raised against :
(1) Requirements
(2) Documentation
(3) Test cases
(4) Improvements suggested by users
Correct Answer: Improvements suggested by users

Q 7: Find odd one
(1) K-means
(2) Hierarchical
(3) Partitional
(4) Splitting
Correct Answer: Splitting

Q 8: Which of the following are characteristics of testable
(1) Observability
(2) Simplicity
(3) Stability
(4) All of these
Correct Answer: All of these

Q 9: FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on
(1) Information domain values
(2) Project schedule
(3) Software functions
(4) Process activities
Correct Answer: Information domain values

Q 10: Which cohesion operator on the same input or output data?
(1) Communicational
(2) Temporal
(3) Procedural
(4) Functional
Correct Answer: Communicational

Q 11: Which of the following is not one of the four major classes of information systems?
(1) Decision support system
(2) Collaboration system
(3) Management information system
(4) Expert system
Correct Answer: Collaboration system

Q 12: Which of the following represents a person or place or thing about which some information is gathered?
(1) Entity
(2) Attribute
(3) Data store
(4) Data flow
Correct Answer: Entity

Q 13: Which of the following factors does not necessarily contribute to the failure of particular systems development projects?
(1) Insufficient testing
(2) Inadequate or improper system design.
(3) A project that spans multiple departments
(4) A lack of top management support
Correct Answer: A project that spans multiple departments

Q 14: Which among the following is not a level of quality assurance?
(1) Testing
(2) Verification
(3) Validation
(4) Observation
Correct Answer: Observation

Q 15: Traditionally, the only phase of software development where a formal approach is used is 
(1) Programming
(2) Design
(3) Requirements
(4) Planning
Correct Answer: Programming

Q 16:

A regression test

(1) Will always be automated
(2) Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected
(3) Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected
(4) Can only be run during user acceptance testing
Correct Answer: Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected

Q 17: Which of the following is not one of the guiding principles of software project scheduling.
(1) Compartmentalization
(2) Market assessment
(3) Time allocation
(4) Effort validation
Correct Answer: Market assessment

Q 18: Which is not a quality metric?
(1) Maintainability
(2) Integrity
(3) Usability
(4) Controllability
Correct Answer: Controllability

Q 19: In significant codes some or all parts of the code
(1) Are meaningful
(2) Are usable
(3) Are significant
(4) Represent values
Correct Answer: Represent values

Q 20: Which is not a software life cycle model?
(1) Spiral Model
(2) Waterfall Model
(3) Prototyping Model
(4) Capability Maturity Model
Correct Answer: Capability Maturity Model

Q 21: RUP stands for .................. created by a division of ........................
(1) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
(2) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
(3) Rational Unified Program, IBM
(4) Rational Unified Process, IBM
Correct Answer: Rational Unified Process, IBM

Q 22: ................ is a popular version of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)? 
(1) Waterfall model
(2) V model
(3) Spiral model
(4) Iterative model
Correct Answer: Waterfall model

Q 23: All Statements are activated at a single time is termed as?
(1) Logical Cohesion
(2) Temporal Cohesion
(3) Functional Cohesion
(4) Procedural Cohesion
Correct Answer: Temporal Cohesion

Q 24:

Arrange the following activities for making a software product using 4GT.

1. Design strategy

2. Transformation into product

3. Implementation

4. Requirement gathering 

(1) 1 3 4 2
(2) 4 3 1 2
(3) 4 1 3 2
(4) 1 4 3 2
Correct Answer: 4 1 3 2

Q 25: Which technique is applied to ensure the continued evolution of legacy system?
(1) Forward Engineering
(2) Reverse Engineering
(3) Reengineering
(4) Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
Correct Answer: Reverse Engineering and Reengineering

Q 26: The rule(s) to follow in construction decision tables is(are):
(1) Standardized language must be used consistently
(2) A decision should be given name
(3) The logic of the table is independent of the sequence in which condition rules are written, but the action takes place in the order is which the events occur
(4) All of these
Correct Answer: All of these

Q 27: A decision table facilitates conditions to be related to 
(1) tables
(2) actions
(3) operation
(4) programs
Correct Answer: actions

Q 28: A consideration evaluated by management when planning to convert to a computer system is :
(1) Available software
(2) CPU sized speed
(3) Maintenance
(4) All of these
Correct Answer: All of these

Q 29: Structured design methodology is an approach to design that adheres to rule based on principles such as 
(1) top-down refinement
(2) data flow analysis
(3) bottom-up design
(4) All of these
Correct Answer: data flow analysis

Q 30: Product is 
(1) Deliverables
(2) User expectations
(3) Organization's effort in development
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Deliverables

Q 31: SDLC stands for
(1) Software design life cycle
(2) Software development life cycle
(3) System development life cycle
(4) System design life cycle
Correct Answer: Software development life cycle

Q 32: RAD stands for 
(1) Rapid application development
(2) Relative application development
(3) Ready application development
(4) Repeated application development
Correct Answer: Rapid application development

Q 33: IEEE standard for SRS is:
(1) IEEE Standard 837-1998
(2) IEEE Standard 830-1998
(3) IEEE Standard 832-1998
(4) IEEE Standard 839-1998
Correct Answer: IEEE Standard 830-1998

Q 34: The worst type of cohesion is 
(1) Temporal cohesion
(2) Coincidental cohesion
(3) Logical cohesion
(4) Sequential cohesion
Correct Answer: Coincidental cohesion

Q 35: Fault is 
(1) Mistake in the program
(2) Defect in the program
(3) Error in the program
(4) All of these
Correct Answer: All of these

Q 36: In clean room software engineering
(1) Only eco-friendly hardware is used
(2) Correctness of the code is verified before testing
(3) Only hired facilities are used for development.
(4) Implementation is done only after ensuring correctness.
Correct Answer: Implementation is done only after ensuring correctness.

Q 37:

What is the simplest model in software development?

(1) Waterfall model
(2) Iterative
(3) Prototyping
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Waterfall model

Q 38:

Consider the following pseudo-code:

IF((A>B) AND (C>D)) THEN

    A= A+1

    B= B+1

ENDIF

The cyclomatic complexity of the pseudo-code is

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5
Correct Answer: 3

Q 39: In the Spiral model of software development, the primary determinant in selecting activities in each iteration is 
(1) Iteration size
(2) Cost
(3) Adopted process such as Rational Unified Process or Extreme Programming
(4) Risk
Correct Answer: Risk

Q 40: ISO 9126 contains definitions of
(1) Quality characteristics
(2) Quality factors
(3) Quality attributes
(4) All of the above
Correct Answer: All of the above

Q 41: A decision table has
(1) Four portions
(2) Three portions
(3) Five portions
(4) Two portions
Correct Answer: Four portions

Q 42: Acceptance testing is done by
(1) Developers
(2) Customers
(3) Testers
(4) All of these
Correct Answer: Customers

Q 43: Integration testing techniques are
(1) Top down
(2) Bottom up
(3) Sandwich
(4) All of these
Correct Answer: All of these

Q 44: The worst type of coupling is
(1) Data coupling
(2) Control coupling
(3) Common coupling
(4) Content coupling
Correct Answer: Content coupling

Q 45: Which level of CMM is for process control?
(1) Repeatable
(2) Initial
(3) Defined
(4) Optimizing
Correct Answer: Optimizing

Q 46: An important aspect in coding is 
(1) readability
(2) productivity
(3) brevity
(4) to use as small a memory space as possible
Correct Answer: readability

Q 47: A signal processor software is expected to operate for 91.25 days after repair and the mean software repair time is expected to be 5 minutes. Then, the availability of the software is:
(1) 96.9862%
(2) 97.9862%
(3) 98.9962%
(4) 99.9962%
Correct Answer: 99.9962%

Q 48: In PERT/CPM, the merge event represents ................... of two or more events.
(1) splitting
(2) completion
(3) beginning
(4) joining
Correct Answer: completion

Q 49: A continue statement in a while loop shall
(1) transfer control to statement just before while loop
(2) transfer control to first statement of while loop
(3) transfer contorl to last statement of while loop
(4) transfer control to test condition of while loop
Correct Answer: transfer control to test condition of while loop

Q 50: How many methods are defined in the Serializable interface?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) None
(4) Four
Correct Answer: None

Q 51: A pointer is 
(1) A keyword used to create variable
(2) A variable that stores address of an instruction
(3) A variable that stores address of other variable
(4) All of the above
Correct Answer: A variable that stores address of other variable

Q 52: What is the return type of the method getID() defined in AWTEvent class
(1) Int
(2) long
(3) object
(4) Component
Correct Answer: Int

Q 53: Which of the following is the correct expression of character 4?
(1) 4
(2) "4"
(3) '\0004'
(4) '4'
Correct Answer: '4'

Q 54: What is the size of the Short integer type in terms of bits?
(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 64
Correct Answer: 16

Q 55: Which of the following is not logical operator?
(1) &&
(2) &
(3) ||
(4) !
Correct Answer: &

Q 56: Which of the following is not supported for IIS?
(1) Windows XP Professional
(2) Windows XP Home
(3) Windows 2003 Server
(4) Windows 2000 Server
Correct Answer: Windows XP Home

Q 57: What is the file extension of form module in VB?
(1) .frm
(2) .vb
(3) .frb
(4) .fru
Correct Answer: .frm

Q 58: The .NET framework which provides automatic memory management using a technique called.
(1) Serialization
(2) Garbage Collection
(3) Assemblies
(4) Overriding
Correct Answer: Garbage Collection

Q 59: Web Methods are part of 
(1) Web services
(2) Website
(3) Web application
(4) WPF application
Correct Answer: Web services

Q 60:

Which of the following is not the method of dataAdapter?

(1) Fill
(2) FillSchema
(3) Readdata
(4) Update
Correct Answer: Readdata

Q 61: Which of the following denote value that can be taken by Cache-Control of ASP.NET?
(1) Public
(2) Private
(3) no-cache
(4) All of the above
Correct Answer: All of the above

Q 62: Which method do you invoke on the Data Adapter control to load hour generated dataset?
(1) Fill( )
(2) Read( )
(3) ExecuteQuery( )
(4) None of these
Correct Answer: Fill( )

Q 63: What Data Type is return in IsPostback property?
(1) bit
(2) Boolean
(3) int
(4) string
Correct Answer: Boolean

Q 64: Team foundation is a ................ tier architecture
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) None
Correct Answer: Three

Q 65: Which is not a validation control?
(1) Required Field Validator
(2) Compare Validator
(3) Error Validator
(4) Regular Expression Validator
Correct Answer: Error Validator

Q 66: What is the default authentication mode for IIS?
(1) Windows
(2) Anonymous
(3) Basic Authentication
(4) None
Correct Answer: Anonymous

Q 67: A template can be used to create a family of :
(1) Classes
(2) Functions
(3) Classes and functions
(4) None of these
Correct Answer: Classes and functions

Q 68: How many classes can a single .NET DLL contain?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Many
Correct Answer: Many

Q 69: What is loads and executes at client side in internet?
(1) Object
(2) Class
(3) JSP
(4) Applet
Correct Answer: Applet

Q 70: Which of these classes provide methods for writing binary representation of Java primitive value
(1) DataOutputStream
(2) FileOutputStream
(3) ObjectiveOutputStream
(4) PrintStream
Correct Answer: DataOutputStream

Q 71: An exception is caused by
(1) A hardware problem
(2) A problem in the operating system
(3) A run time error
(4) A syntax error
Correct Answer: A run time error

Q 72: Inheritance in object-oriented system is used to
(1) Create new classes from existing classes
(2) Add new operations to existing operations
(3) Add new state to existing operations
(4) Add new state to existing states
Correct Answer: Create new classes from existing classes

Q 73: which of the following class level (nonlocal) variable declaration will not compile?
(1) protected int a;
(2) transient int b=3;
(3) private synchronized int e;
(4) volatile int d;
Correct Answer: private synchronized int e;

Q 74: what is the most restrictive access modifier that will allow members of one class to have access to members of another class in the same package?
(1) public
(2) abstract
(3) protected
(4) default access
Correct Answer: default access

Q 75: Which method must be defined by a class implementing  the java.lang.Runnable interface?
(1) void run()
(2) public void run()
(3) public void start()
(4) void run(int priority)
Correct Answer: public void run()

Q 76: Name the implicit variable available to JSP pages that may be used to access all the other implicit objects.
(1) page
(2) pageContext
(3) context
(4) object
Correct Answer: pageContext

Q 77: Which of the following is not a characteristic of an object?
(1) Identity
(2) Behavior
(3) Action
(4) State
Correct Answer: Action

Q 78: A subclass inherits is 'parents' is
(1) Attributes, links
(2) Attributes, operations
(3) Attributes, operations, relationship
(4) methods, links
Correct Answer: Attributes, operations, relationship

Q 79: Members of a class specified as .............. are accessible only to methods of that class.
(1) Protected
(2) Final
(3) Public
(4) Private
Correct Answer: Private

Q 80: In java, objects are passed as
(1) Copy of that object
(2) Method called call by value
(3) Memory address
(4) Constructor
Correct Answer: Memory address

Q 81: The java run time system automatically calls this method while garbage collection.
(1) finalizer()
(2) finalize()
(3) finally()
(4) finalized()
Correct Answer: finalize()

Q 82: Which one of the following class definitions is a valid of a class that cannot be extended?
(1) class Link { }
(2) abstract class Link { }
(3) static class Link { }
(4) final class Link { }
Correct Answer: final class Link { }

Q 83: To prevent any method from overriding, we declare the method as,
(1) static
(2) const
(3) final
(4) abstract
Correct Answer: final

Q 84: Basic Java language functions are stored in which of the following java package?
(1) java.lang
(2) java.io
(3) java.net
(4) java.util
Correct Answer: java.lang

Q 85: Which of the following has method names flush()?
(1) Input stream
(2) Output stream
(3) Reader stream
(4) input reader stream
Correct Answer: Output stream

Q 86: What is the fundamental unit of information of writer stream?
(1) Characters
(2) Bytes
(3) Files
(4) Records
Correct Answer: Characters

Q 87: What is the sequence of major events in the life of an applet?
(1) init, start, stop, destroy
(2) start, init, stop, destroy
(3) init, start, destroy, stop
(4) destroy, start, init, stop
Correct Answer: init, start, stop, destroy

Q 88: What modifier is to be used if you wish to declare that you want to no longer allow subclasses to override your variables or methods?
(1) Finally
(2) Abstract
(3) Final
(4) Volatile
Correct Answer: Final

Q 89: In a class definition, the special method provided to be called to create an instance of that class is known as a/an
(1) Interpreter
(2) Destructor
(3) Constructor
(4) Object
Correct Answer: Constructor

Q 90: Which method that executes immediately after the init () method in an applet?
(1) destroy ()
(2) start ()
(3) stop ()
(4) run ()
Correct Answer: start ()

Q 91: When you run an applet, which of the following is invoked first?
(1) The init method
(2) The applet's default constructor
(3) The stop method
(4) The destroy method
Correct Answer: The applet's default constructor

Q 92: Every event object has the ............ method.
(1) getSource()
(2) getActionCommand()
(3) getTimeStamp()
(4) getWhen()
Correct Answer: getSource()

Q 93: Which is a special file that contains information about the files packaged in a JAR file?
(1) Class file
(2) Source file
(3) Text file
(4) Manifest file
Correct Answer: Manifest file

Q 94: When an object has many forms it has?
(1) Scalability
(2) Abstraction
(3) Polimorphism
(4) Encapsulation
Correct Answer: Polimorphism

Q 95: Which header file is required by the C++ programming language to use the OOPS concept?
(1) stdio.h
(2) iostream.h
(3) stdlib.h
(4) We can easily use the OOPS concepts in c++ programs without using any header file
Correct Answer: We can easily use the OOPS concepts in c++ programs without using any header file

Q 96: What is the use of ios::trunc mode?
(1) To open a file in input mode
(2) To open a file in output mode
(3) To truncate an existing file to half
(4) To truncate an existing file to zero
Correct Answer: To truncate an existing file to zero

Q 97:

#include<userdefined.h>

Which of the following is the correct syntax to add the header file in the C++ program?

(1) #include
(2) #include "userdefined.h"
(3) "userdefined.h"
(4) Both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: Both (a) and (b)

Q 98: In C++, overloaded functions
(1) Are the group of functions with the same name
(2) May fall unexpectedly due to stress
(3) All have the same name and type of arguments
(4) All of the above
Correct Answer: Are the group of functions with the same name

Q 99: The derivation of Child class from Base class is indicated by ............... Symbol
(1) : :
(2) :
(3) |
(4) ;
Correct Answer: :

Q 100: How to get position n bytes forward in fileobject?
(1) fileobject.seekg(n,ios;cur);
(2) fileobject.seekg(ios::cur,n);
(3) fileobject.seekg(n,ios::cur);
(4) fileobject.seekg(ios:cur,n);
Correct Answer: fileobject.seekg(n,ios::cur);