Daily Exam Programmer Paper- I (30-06-2024)

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Q 1:

All changes made by a transaction are made permanent in the database only after transaction :-

(1) FINAL
(2) ROLL BACK
(3) ABORT
(4) COMMIT
Correct Answer: COMMIT

Q 2: The problem that occur when one transaction update a database item and then the transaction failed for some reason is..................
(1) Temporary select problem
(2) Temporary modify problem
(3) Dirty read problem
(4) None of these
Correct Answer: None of these

Q 3: In which normal form decomposition of a relationship is lossless join but may not be dependency preserving.
(1) PJNF
(2) BCNF
(3) 3NF
(4) All of these
Correct Answer: BCNF

Q 4: That transactional concurrency leads to increase
(1) Integrity
(2) Consistency
(3) Mutual execution
(4) Throughput
Correct Answer: Throughput

Q 5: In a relational algebra, the Cartesian product is
(1) Unity operator
(2) Binary operator
(3) Ternary operator
(4) None of these
Correct Answer: Binary operator

Q 6: The DROPTABLE statement:
(1) Deletes the table structure only
(2) Deletes the table structure along with the table data
(3) Work weather or not referential integrity constraints would be violated
(4) Is not a SQL statement
Correct Answer: Deletes the table structure along with the table data

Q 7: "Employee's salary should not be greater than rupees 7000". This is an example of
(1) Infeasible constraint
(2) Overdefined constraint
(3) Integrity constraint
(4) Field constraint
Correct Answer: Overdefined constraint

Q 8: E-R diagram, the term cardinality is a synonyms of the term
(1) Attribute
(2) Degree
(3) Entities
(4) Cartesian
Correct Answer: Degree

Q 9: Which one of the following techniques is sometimes used to solve integrity problems in a concurrent transaction scenario?
(1) First - come first - served
(2) Greedy algorithms
(3) Strassens's algorithm
(4) Two-phase locking
Correct Answer: Two-phase locking

Q 10: When the referential integrity rule is enforced, which one is usually not a valid action in response to the deletion of a row that contains a primary key value referenced elsewhere?
(1) Do not allow the deletion
(2) Accept the deletion without any other action
(3) Delete this related rows
(4) Set the foreign keys of related rows to mull
Correct Answer: Accept the deletion without any other action

Q 11: Which of the following it's turn off the data manipulation language (DML) ?
(1) It is used to define the physical characteristics of each record
(2) It cannot interface with high level programming language
(3) It refers to data using physical addresses
(4) None of these
Correct Answer: None of these

Q 12: Which of the following is an assertion in DBMS?
(1) Domain constraint
(2) View
(3) Generalization
(4) Trigger
Correct Answer: Domain constraint

Q 13: Which advantages does a Distributed database has over a centralized database?
(1) Slow Response
(2) Overall complexity
(3) Modular growth
(4) Software Cost
Correct Answer: Modular growth

Q 14: GRANT and REVOKE are -
(1) Mandatory Access Control
(2) Discretionary Access Control
(3) Database Access Control
(4) DBMS Access Control
Correct Answer: Discretionary Access Control

Q 15: Recovery in a distributed DBMS is achieved using?
(1) Commit Protocol
(2) Revoke Protocol
(3) Un-Commit Protocol
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Commit Protocol

Q 16: Which SQL statement below is equivalent to: SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE HOMETOWN='KA';
(1) SELECT NAME IN EMPLOYEE WHERE HOMETOWN IN ('KA');
(2) SELECT NAME IN EMPLOYEE WHERE HOMETOWN = 'KA';
(3) SELECT NAME IN EMPLOYEE WHERE HOMETOWN = 'K';
(4) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE HOMETOWN IN ('KA')
Correct Answer: SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE HOMETOWN IN ('KA')

Q 17: Architecture of the database can be viewed as
(1) two levels.
(2) four levels.
(3) three levels.
(4) one levels.
Correct Answer: three levels.

Q 18: Fourth normal form (4 NF) relations are needed when
(1) there are multivalued dependencies between attributes in composite key
(2) there are more then one composite key
(3) there are two or more overlapping composite keys
(4) there are multivalued dependency between non-key attributes
Correct Answer: there are multivalued dependencies between attributes in composite key

Q 19: Transaction timestamp is 
(1) Not unique for each transaction
(2) Larger for older transaction
(3) Unique identifier assigned for each transaction
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Unique identifier assigned for each transaction

Q 20: Which of the following is the process of selecting the data storage and data access characteristics of the database?
(1) Logical database design
(2) Physical database design
(3) Testing and performance tuning
(4) Evaluation and selecting
Correct Answer: Physical database design

Q 21: Which of the following technique is an alternative to log based recovery?
(1) Shadow paging
(2) Locks
(3) Check points
(4) Recovery with current transactions
Correct Answer: Shadow paging

Q 22: The most widely used conceptual model is the ___________.
(1) E-R model
(2) Chen model
(3) External model
(4) Attribute model
Correct Answer: E-R model

Q 23: Which of the following is correct?
(1) Function dependencies are not associated with relations; they are based on the semantics of information that we are dealing with
(2) If a relation has no redundant information its attributes must not have any function dependencies
(3) the FDs that hold for attributes of a relation need not be satisfied at all times
(4) BCNF is a fourth normal form.
Correct Answer: Function dependencies are not associated with relations; they are based on the semantics of information that we are dealing with

Q 24: Horizontal Fragmentation is
(1) Divide the data up by logical groups of records
(2) Divide the data up by logical groups of attributes
(3) Divide the data up by logical groups of entities
(4) Divide the data up by logical groups of files
Correct Answer: Divide the data up by logical groups of records

Q 25:

What is the result of the following query?

SELECT FLOOR(3.6) FROM DUAL?

(1) 3.5
(2) 3.0
(3) 4.0
(4) 3.7
Correct Answer: 3.7

Q 26: The goal of ________ is the protection of data from accidental or international threats to its integrity and access.
(1) Rollback
(2) Integrity
(3) Save point
(4) Commit
Correct Answer: Commit

Q 27: What are "Raw" facts such as telephone number, birth date, sales value etc are called?
(1) Record
(2) Data
(3) File
(4) Field
Correct Answer: Data

Q 28: Which of the following are introduced to reduce the overheads caused by the log-based recovery?
(1) Checkpoints
(2) Indices
(3) Deadlocks
(4) Locks
Correct Answer: Checkpoints

Q 29:

An alternative is to organize the sequential file physically is a-

(1) Linked List
(2) List
(3) Stack
(4) Queue
Correct Answer: Linked List

Q 30: In a DBMS, you can -
(1) Create a file
(2) Delete a file
(3) Retrieve a file
(4) All of the above
Correct Answer: All of the above

Q 31: This set of related data item is called-
(1) table
(2) file
(3) record
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: record

Q 32: ______ is used to develop back-end of an application.
(1) GUI
(2) Statement
(3) Database
(4) Form
Correct Answer: Database

Q 33: SELECT is a-
(1) DCL Statement
(2) DDL Statement
(3) DML Statement
(4) TCL Statement
Correct Answer: DML Statement

Q 34: Which of the following is a valid SQL type?
(1) FLOAT
(2) NUMERIC
(3) CHARACTER
(4) All of the above
Correct Answer: All of the above

Q 35:

The ________ database is the most widely used database structure.

(1) General
(2) Hierarchical
(3) Standard
(4) Relational
Correct Answer: Relational

Q 36: A relational Database Management System (RDBMS) package manager data is more than one file at once. How does it organize these files?
(1) Table
(2) Relation
(3) Tuple
(4) Both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: Both (a) and (b)

Q 37: Let R=(A,B,C,D,E,F) be a relation scheme with the following dependencies : C->F, E->A, EC->D, A->B. Which of the following is a key for R?
(1) CD
(2) EC
(3) AE
(4) AC
Correct Answer: EC

Q 38: Generally speaking, for a weak entity set to be meaningul it must be part of a
(1) One-to-one relationship
(2) one-to-many relationship
(3) Many-to-many relationship
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: one-to-many relationship

Q 39: Select the correct statement from the following on referential integrity.
(1) Referential integrity constraints check whether the primary key values are unique.
(2) Referential integrity constraints are specified between two relation in a schema.
(3) Referential integrity constraints check whether an attribute value lies in the given range.
(4) Referential integrity constraints are specified between entities having recursive relationship.
Correct Answer: Referential integrity constraints are specified between two relation in a schema.

Q 40:

Consider the relation R with four attributes A,B,C and D the functional dependencies

{(A,B)→(C,D) and C → D}

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) C is key for relation R
(2) R is in 3 NF
(3) Functional dependency C → D violates 3 NF
(4) R is in BCNF
Correct Answer: Functional dependency C → D violates 3 NF

Q 41: Which of the following relational algebraic operation is not a commutative operation?
(1) Union
(2) Intersection
(3) Selection
(4) Projection
Correct Answer: Projection

Q 42: Which of the following is correct?
(1) An SQL query automatically eliminates duplicates.
(2) An SQL query will not work if there are no indexes on the relations.
(3) SQL permits attribute names to be repeated in the same relation.
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: None of the above

Q 43: Which of the following schemes are used for ensuring atomicity?
(1) Log with immediate modification
(2) Log with deferred modification
(3) Shadow Paging
(4) All of the above
Correct Answer: All of the above

Q 44: Which of the following is true for two-phase locking?
(1) Lock acquisition is the second phase
(2) Lock can be acquired at any time
(3) Lock are acquired in the first phase
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Lock are acquired in the first phase

Q 45: Which of the following is not a file operation?
(1) Find
(2) Find Next
(3) Reset
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Reset

Q 46: If, instead of Nested-loop join, Block nested-loop join is used, again with the most appropriate choice of table in the outer loop, the reduction in number of block accesses required for reading the data will be
(1) 38400
(2) 30400
(3) 0
(4) 798400
Correct Answer: 38400

Q 47: Relation produced from an E-R model will always be in
(1) First normal form
(2) Second normal form
(3) Third normal form
(4) Fourth normal form
Correct Answer: First normal form

Q 48: Which of the following is NOT a part of the ACID properties of database transactions?
(1) Isolation
(2) Consistency
(3) Atomicity
(4) Deadlock-Freedom
Correct Answer: Deadlock-Freedom

Q 49: The DUAL table has
(1) Many tows and many columns
(2) One column with many rows
(3) One row and one column
(4) One row with many columns
Correct Answer: One row and one column

Q 50: Which is the best suitable for sequential access of data?
(1) B+ tree
(2) B tree
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Both (a) and (b)

Q 51:

Which of the following group functions ignore NULL values?

(1) MAX
(2) SUM
(3) COUNT
(4) All of these
Correct Answer: All of these

Q 52: Which of the following SQL commands can be used to modify existing data in a database table?
(1) MODIFY
(2) UPDATE
(3) NEW
(4) CHANGE
Correct Answer: UPDATE

Q 53: Which of these are true of Collection types?
(1) They store data of the same data type
(2) They are unconstrained
(3) They are sparse
(4) All of these
Correct Answer: All of these

Q 54: Which of the following SQL commands can be used to add data to a database table?
(1) UPDATE
(2) APPEND
(3) ADD
(4) INSERT
Correct Answer: INSERT

Q 55: Which of the following is dense index?
(1) Primary index
(2) Clusters index
(3) Secondary index
(4) Secondary non key index
Correct Answer: Secondary index

Q 56: In RDBMS, which type of join returns all rows that satisfy the join condition?
(1) Inner Join
(2) Outer Join
(3) Semi Join
(4) Anti Join
Correct Answer: Inner Join

Q 57: Which protocol is not used for electronic mail?
(1) SMTP
(2) MIME
(3) IMAP
(4) SNMP
Correct Answer: SNMP

Q 58: Cell Relay, also known as
(1) ISDN
(2) X.25
(3) ATM
(4) Frame Relay
Correct Answer: ATM

Q 59: Baud is :
(1) Number of bits transmitted per unit time
(2) Number of bytes transmitted per unit time
(3) Number of signal changes per second
(4) None of these
Correct Answer: Number of signal changes per second

Q 60: DNS Client is also knows as:
(1) DNS updates
(2) DNS resolver
(3) DNS handler
(4) None of these
Correct Answer: DNS resolver

Q 61: Identify the class of IPv4 address 191.1.2.3
(1) Class A
(2) Class B
(3) Class C
(4) Class D
Correct Answer: Class B

Q 62: A television broadcast is an example of __________ transmission.
(1) Half-duplex
(2) Full-duplex
(3) Simplex
(4) Automatic
Correct Answer: Simplex

Q 63: In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence numbers?
(1) 0 to 63
(2) 1 to 63
(3) 0 to 64
(4) 1 to 64
Correct Answer: 0 to 63

Q 64: The process that dynamically assigns an IP address to a network device is called?
(1) DNS
(2) DHCP
(3) NAT
(4) MAC
Correct Answer: DHCP

Q 65: In Point-to-point Protocol (PPP), network layer option are negotiated using
(1) Link Control Protocol
(2) Dynamic Host Control Protocol
(3) Internet Protocol
(4) Network Control Protocol
Correct Answer: Network Control Protocol

Q 66: Which of the following is the character oriented protocol
(1) SDLC
(2) HDLC
(3) BiSYNC
(4) LAPB
Correct Answer: BiSYNC

Q 67: An ATM cell is ................ bytes long.
(1) 53
(2) 5
(3) 48
(4) 60
Correct Answer: 53

Q 68: Dirty bit is used to show the
(1) Page with corrupted data
(2) The wrong page in the memory
(3) Page that is modified after being loaded into a cache memory
(4) Page that is less frequently accessed
Correct Answer: Page that is modified after being loaded into a cache memory

Q 69: For a parallel projection the center of projection is always at ............... which makes the projection parallel.
(1) Infinity
(2) Origin
(3) Center
(4) None of these
Correct Answer: Infinity

Q 70:

What is the Standard HTTP port?

(1) 80
(2) 161
(3) 21
(4) 1024
Correct Answer: 80

Q 71: Suppose computers A and B have IP addresses 10.105.1.113 and 10.105.1.91 respectively and they both use the same netmask N. Which of the values of N given below should not be used if A and B should belong to the same network?
(1) 255.255.255.0
(2) 255.255.255.128
(3) 255.255.255.192
(4) 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: 255.255.255.224

Q 72: Packets of the same session may be routed through different paths in 
(1) TCP, but not UDP
(2) TCP and UDP
(3) UDP, but not TCP
(4) Neither TCP, not UDP
Correct Answer: TCP and UDP

Q 73: A packet whose destination is outside the local TCP/IP network segment is sent to ..........
(1) File server
(2) DNS server
(3) DHCP server
(4) Default gateway
Correct Answer: DNS server

Q 74: A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200-bits frames using a shared channel with a 200 Kbps bandwidth. Find the throughput of the system, if the system (all stations put together) produces 250 frames per second :
(1) 49
(2) 368
(3) 149
(4) 46
Correct Answer: 46

Q 75: When data is encapsulated, which is the correct order?
(1) Data, frame, packet, segment, bit
(2) Segment, data, packet, frame, bit
(3) Data, segment, packet, frame, bit
(4) Data, segment frame, packet, bit
Correct Answer: Data, segment, packet, frame, bit

Q 76: How many non-overlapping channels are available with 802.11g?
(1) 3
(2) 12
(3) 18
(4) 42
Correct Answer: 3

Q 77: The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts?
(1) 7 subnets, 30 hosts each
(2) 8 subnets, 8190 hosts each
(3) 8 subnets, 2046 hosts each
(4) 7 subnets, 2046 hosts each
Correct Answer: 8 subnets, 8190 hosts each

Q 78: What is the maximum distance running the lowest data rate for 802.11g?
(1) About 100 feet
(2) About 175 feet
(3) About 300 feet
(4) About 400 feet
Correct Answer: About 300 feet

Q 79: You want to ping the loopback address of your local host. What will you type?
(1) ping 127.0.0.1
(2) ping 0.0.0.0
(3) ping :: 1
(4) trace 0.0.:.1
Correct Answer: ping :: 1

Q 80: The OSI model has .................. layers.
(1) 4
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 5
Correct Answer: 7

Q 81:

Find the missing number in the following series:
2 4 6 8 ?

(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 11
(4) 12
Correct Answer: 10

Q 82:

Which number should be in the square marked by the question mark?


?
4
6
4
6
8
6
8
10


(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 16
Correct Answer: 2

Q 83:

Find the missing number marked by the question mark:


(1) 12
(2) 13
(3) 11
(4) 15
Correct Answer: 12

Q 84: The clock in my lounge room is 10 minutes slower than the clock on my phone, which is 6 minutes
slow. My tram always leaves 6 minutes early, although it is scheduled for 8:55am. It takes me 20
minutes to get to the tram stop.
What time must I leave, according to my lounge room clock, in order to catch my tram?
(1) 8:49am
(2) 8:35am
(3) 8:23am
(4) 8:13am
Correct Answer: 8:13am

Q 85: Choose a box that is not different to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Correct Answer: 2

Q 86: Which symbol will be on the face opposite to the face with symbol ‘C’ ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) E
(4) F
Correct Answer: F

Q 87: From the positions of a cube are shown below, Which letter will be on the face opposite to face with '1'?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 4
Correct Answer: 4

Q 88: Look at this series: 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ... What number should come next?
(1) 1/5
(2) 1/6
(3) 1/7
(4) 1/8
Correct Answer: 1/8

Q 89: Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ... What number should come next?
(1) 7
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 13
Correct Answer: 10

Q 90: Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ... What number should come next?
(1) 12
(2) 14
(3) 27
(4) 53
Correct Answer: 14

Q 91: राजस्थान राज्य के कुल क्षेत्रफल तथा कुल जनसँख्या को कौन सा जिला लगभग एक सामान प्रतिशत अंश रखता है
(1) बांसवाडा
(2) चुरू
(3) सीकर
(4) सिरोही
Correct Answer: सिरोही

Q 92: राजस्थान के किस जिले की सीमा अंतर्राज्यीय व अंतर्राष्ट्रीय दोनों है
(1) जैसलमेर
(2) गंगानगर
(3) बीकानेर
(4) झालावाड
Correct Answer: गंगानगर

Q 93: निम्न में से किस जिले की सीमा पाकिस्तान से नहीं लगती -
(1) बाड़मेर
(2) बीकानेर
(3) गंगानगर
(4) हनुमानगढ़
Correct Answer: हनुमानगढ़

Q 94: वह जिला जिसकी सीमा पाकिस्तान एवं गुजरात दोनों से लगती है
(1) बाड़मेर
(2) जालौर
(3) जैसलमेर
(4) सिरोही
Correct Answer: बाड़मेर

Q 95: बाड़मेर जिले की सीमा किससे नहीं मिलती है ?
(1) सांचोर
(2) सिरोही
(3) जोधपुर
(4) जैसलमेर
Correct Answer: सिरोही

Q 96:

निम्न में से कोनसा राजस्थान का शहर पाकिस्तान सीमा के निकट है ?

(1) बीकानेर
(2) जैसलमेर
(3) गंगानगर
(4) हनुमानगढ़
Correct Answer: गंगानगर

Q 97:

सिन्धु घाटी से अलग एक हड़प्पा उत्खननकर्ताओ द्वारा निम्नलिखित में से किसका वर्णन किया गया है -

(1) कुरदा
(2) वेनारा
(3) कालीबंगा
(4) बिहारीपुरा
Correct Answer: कालीबंगा

Q 98: वन्दे मातरम् योजना किसके द्वारा संचालित की जा रही है -
(1) सामाजिक अधिकारिता मंत्रालय द्वारा
(2) चिकित्सा मंत्रालय द्वारा
(3) गृह मंत्रालय द्वारा
(4) शिक्षा मंत्रालय द्वारा
Correct Answer: चिकित्सा मंत्रालय द्वारा

Q 99:

निम्न में से किस योजना का उद्देश्य लंबित राजस्व अदालती मामलो को निपटाना है

(1) सरकार आपके द्वार
(2) प्रशासन आपके द्वार
(3) न्याय आपके द्वार
(4) पुलिस आपके द्वार
Correct Answer: न्याय आपके द्वार

Q 100: राष्ट्रिय मरू उद्यान को किस नाम से भी जाना जाता है ?
(1) वनस्पति पार्क
(2) वन्य जिव उद्यान
(3) घास-क्षेत्र पार्क
(4) जीवाश्म पार्क
Correct Answer: जीवाश्म पार्क