| Q 1: | In Transaction, In ACIT properties A stands for |
| (1) | Atomicity |
| (2) | Acidity |
| (3) | Alphabetically |
| (4) | None of the above |
| Correct Answer: Atomicity | |
| Q 2: | The way a particular application views the data from the database that the application uses is a |
| (1) | module |
| (2) | relational model |
| (3) | schema |
| (4) | sub schema |
| Correct Answer: sub schema | |
| Q 3: | Which of the following operation is used if we are interested in only certain columns of a table? |
| (1) | PROJECTION |
| (2) | SELECTION |
| (3) | UNION |
| (4) | JOIN |
| Correct Answer: PROJECTION | |
| Q 4: | A set of possible data values is called |
| (1) | Attribute |
| (2) | Degree |
| (3) | Tuple |
| (4) | Domain |
| Correct Answer: Domain | |
| Q 5: | If the state of the database no longer reflects a real state of the world that the database is supposed to capture, then such a state is called |
| (1) | Consistent state |
| (2) | Parallel state |
| (3) | Atomic state |
| (4) | Inconsistent state |
| Correct Answer: Inconsistent state | |
| Q 6: | DBMS periodically suspends all processing and synchronizes its files and journals through the use of- |
| (1) | Checkpoint facility |
| (2) | Backup facility |
| (3) | Recovery manager |
| (4) | Database change log |
| Correct Answer: Checkpoint facility | |
| Q 7: | An entity type whose existence depends on another entity type is called a _________ entity. |
| (1) | Strong |
| (2) | Weak |
| (3) | Codependent |
| (4) | Varient |
| Correct Answer: Weak | |
| Q 8: | Embedded SQL means |
| (1) | USing the EMBED key word in a SQL statement |
| (2) | Writing a SQL statement to retrieve data from more than one relation |
| (3) | Writing SQL statements within codes written in a general programming language |
| (4) | Specifying a condition and action to be taken in case the given condition is satisfied in a trigger |
| Correct Answer: Writing SQL statements within codes written in a general programming language | |
| Q 9: | A relational operator that yields all possible pairs of rows from two tables is known as a/an |
| (1) | Products |
| (2) | Union |
| (3) | Intersect |
| (4) | Difference |
| Correct Answer: Products | |
| Q 10: | The means that data used during the execution of a transaction cannot be used by a second transaction until the first one is completed is called |
| (1) | Serializability |
| (2) | Atomicity |
| (3) | Isolation |
| (4) | Time Stamping |
| Correct Answer: Isolation | |
| Q 11: | Which of the following is not a component of storage manager? |
| (1) | Authorization and integrity manager |
| (2) | Transaction manager |
| (3) | Query evaluation engine |
| (4) | File manager |
| Correct Answer: Query evaluation engine | |
| Q 12: | The term ___________ is widely used to refer to older applications in an organization that are based on file processing. |
| (1) | Old systems |
| (2) | Legacy ststems |
| (3) | Corporate systems |
| (4) | Private systems |
| Correct Answer: Legacy ststems | |
| Q 13: | Which of the following is not considered to be a basic element of an enterprise-class database system? |
| (1) | Database application |
| (2) | Users |
| (3) | DBMS |
| (4) | COBOL programs |
| Correct Answer: COBOL programs | |
| Q 14: | A transaction file stores- |
| (1) | Data that rarely changes |
| (2) | Data that never changes |
| (3) | Data that frequently changes |
| (4) | Data that is erroneous |
| Correct Answer: Data that frequently changes | |
| Q 15: | Open source tool used for spatial data analysis is - |
| (1) | ArcGIS |
| (2) | IDRISI |
| (3) | Oracle Spatialjet |
| (4) | QGIS |
| Correct Answer: Oracle Spatialjet | |
| Q 16: | Data duplication is also called - |
| (1) | Data reducdancy |
| (2) | Data replication |
| (3) | Data inconsistency |
| (4) | Data duplicacy |
| Correct Answer: Data reducdancy | |
| Q 17: | Count function in SQL returns the numbers of |
| (1) | Values |
| (2) | Distinct values |
| (3) | Groups |
| (4) | Columns |
| Correct Answer: Values | |
| Q 18: | State the data hierarchy which goes from bits and bytes to |
| (1) | Entities, attributes, fields and records |
| (2) | Fields, attributes, entities and records |
| (3) | Fields, records, files and database |
| (4) | Records, entities, fields and database |
| Correct Answer: Fields, records, files and database | |
| Q 19: | ___________ controls are incorporated in the data management system that restrict access to data and also restrict actions that people may take when they access data. |
| (1) | Concurrency |
| (2) | Atomicity |
| (3) | Security |
| (4) | Data |
| Correct Answer: Concurrency | |
| Q 20: | In the ____________ file organization, data are collected in the order in which they arrive where each record consists of one burst of data. |
| (1) | pile |
| (2) | sequential |
| (3) | indexed |
| (4) | indexed sequential |
| Correct Answer: pile | |
| Q 21: | The raw facts are called- |
| (1) | command |
| (2) | program |
| (3) | response |
| (4) | data |
| Correct Answer: data | |
| Q 22: | A DBMS query language is designed to |
| (1) | Support end user who use English like commands |
| (2) | Support in the development of complex applications software |
| (3) | Specify the structure of a database |
| (4) | All of the above |
| Correct Answer: All of the above | |
| Q 23: | A recursive foreign key is a : |
| (1) | References a relation |
| (2) | References a table |
| (3) | References its own relation |
| (4) | References a foreign key |
| Correct Answer: References its own relation | |
| Q 24: | Which of the following is not a type of SQL constraint? |
| (1) | PRIMARY KEY |
| (2) | ALTERNATE KEY |
| (3) | FOREIGN KEY |
| (4) | UNIQUE |
| Correct Answer: ALTERNATE KEY | |
| Q 25: | Null values in SQL indicate (i) Zero Value (ii) Value is unknown (iii) Value does not exist |
| (1) | (i) and (ii) |
| (2) | (ii) and (iii) |
| (3) | Only (iii) |
| (4) | All of these |
| Correct Answer: (ii) and (iii) | |
| Q 26: | All of the following are advantages of SQL-invoked routines EXCEPT |
| (1) | Flexibility |
| (2) | Efficiency |
| (3) | Sharability |
| (4) | Security |
| Correct Answer: Security | |
| Q 27: | The best solution for a dba to do in the case of a deadlock is |
| (1) | re-boot the system |
| (2) | backup the database, drop the indexes and restore the database |
| (3) | see the sessions which are running and kill all the sessions involved in the deadlock except for one |
| (4) | None of the above |
| Correct Answer: see the sessions which are running and kill all the sessions involved in the deadlock except for one | |
| Q 28: | In order to maintain transactional integrity and database consistency, what technology does a DBMS deploy? |
| (1) | Triggers |
| (2) | Pointers |
| (3) | Locks |
| (4) | Deadlocks |
| Correct Answer: Locks | |
| Q 29: | A ______ name must be unique within a database. |
| (1) | Character |
| (2) | field |
| (3) | record |
| (4) | table |
| Correct Answer: table | |
| Q 30: | Which key cannot have duplicate values? |
| (1) | Index key |
| (2) | Primary Key |
| (3) | Foreign Key |
| (4) | Super Key |
| Correct Answer: Primary Key | |
| Q 31: | Which of the following with respect to SQL TRUNCATE statement is true? |
| (1) | After deleting rows, TRUNCATE dows not free the space containing table |
| (2) | We may not be able to roll back in case of TRUNCATE in some databases. |
| (3) | We may roll back truncated data any time |
| (4) | We can use 'where' clause with TRUNCATE statement |
| Correct Answer: We may not be able to roll back in case of TRUNCATE in some databases. | |
| Q 32: | Which type of join returns all rows that satisfy the join condition? |
| (1) | Inner join |
| (2) | Semi join |
| (3) | Outer join |
| (4) | Anti join |
| Correct Answer: Inner join | |
| Q 33: | Which of the following is a property of transactions? |
| (1) | Atomicity |
| (2) | Consistency |
| (3) | Isolation |
| (4) | All of the above |
| Correct Answer: All of the above | |
| Q 34: | The set of permitted values for each attribute is called its |
| (1) | Attribute set |
| (2) | Group |
| (3) | Domain |
| (4) | Attribute range |
| Correct Answer: Domain | |
| Q 35: | Data independency in DBMS is known as |
| (1) | Data modeling |
| (2) | Data capturing |
| (3) | Data hiding |
| (4) | Data consistency |
| Correct Answer: Data modeling | |
| Q 36: | What does the data dictionary identify? |
| (1) | Field types |
| (2) | Field names |
| (3) | Field formates |
| (4) | All of the above |
| Correct Answer: All of the above | |
| Q 37: | The column of a table is referred to as the |
| (1) | Entity |
| (2) | Attribute |
| (3) | Tuple |
| (4) | Degree |
| Correct Answer: Attribute | |
| Q 38: | The database environment has all of the following components except |
| (1) | Users |
| (2) | Separate files |
| (3) | Database |
| (4) | Database administration |
| Correct Answer: Separate files | |
| Q 39: | Which os the discriminator of the weak entity? |
| (1) | {Account number, date} |
| (2) | Transaction number |
| (3) | Account number |
| (4) | Date |
| Correct Answer: Transaction number | |
| Q 40: | Which of the following is generally a benefit of normalization? |
| (1) | Performance is improved |
| (2) | Insertion anomalies are avoided |
| (3) | Selection anomalies are avoided |
| (4) | Number of tables is reduced |
| Correct Answer: Performance is improved | |
| Q 41: | Which of the following cannot be restarted? |
| (1) | Transaction aborted due to software error |
| (2) | Transaction aborted due to hardware error |
| (3) | Transaction not aborted due to hardware or software error but aborted due to internal logic |
| (4) | Observable external writes. |
| Correct Answer: Transaction not aborted due to hardware or software error but aborted due to internal logic | |
| Q 42: | Which allocation scheme would work best for a file system implemented on a device that can only be accessed sequentially, a tape drive, for instance? |
| (1) | Contiguous allocation |
| (2) | Indexed allocation |
| (3) | Non Contiguous allocation |
| (4) | None of the above |
| Correct Answer: Contiguous allocation | |
| Q 43: | Which of the following is not a type of data dictionary view? |
| (1) | SYS |
| (2) | ALL |
| (3) | DBA |
| (4) | USER |
| Correct Answer: SYS | |
| Q 44: | SGA stands for |
| (1) | Show Global Area |
| (2) | Shut Global Area |
| (3) | System Global Area |
| (4) | Start Global Area |
| Correct Answer: System Global Area | |
| Q 45: | Suppose a procedure my_proc is created with no formal parameter. Which of the following calls is correct? |
| (1) | my_proc |
| (2) | my_proc; |
| (3) | my_proc() |
| (4) | my_proc(); |
| Correct Answer: my_proc; | |
| Q 46: | In SQL, 10/NULL sill evaluate to |
| (1) | FALSE |
| (2) | 10 |
| (3) | NULL |
| (4) | -1 |
| Correct Answer: NULL | |
| Q 47: | The SQL statement SELECT LPAD('abcd', 10, 'wert') FROM DUAL; prints |
| (1) | wertweabcd |
| (2) | abwertwert |
| (3) | wertwertab |
| (4) | abcdwertwer |
| Correct Answer: wertweabcd | |
| Q 48: | To have a variable in global scope, declare it inside a |
| (1) | procedure |
| (2) | function |
| (3) | package |
| (4) | None of the above |
| Correct Answer: package | |
| Q 49: | Which of the following are pre-defined error conditions. |
| (1) | NO_DATA_FOUND |
| (2) | TOO_MANY_ROWS |
| (3) | CASE_NOT_FOUND |
| (4) | All of these |
| Correct Answer: All of these | |
| Q 50: | Which of the following is not a valid parameter mode? |
| (1) | IN |
| (2) | OUT |
| (3) | IN OUT |
| (4) | None of the above |
| Correct Answer: None of the above | |
| Q 51: | The following device is used to join different kinds of network at data link layer: |
| (1) | Repeater |
| (2) | Gateway |
| (3) | Router |
| (4) | Bridge |
| Correct Answer: Bridge | |
| Q 52: | WLAN security standard make use of IEEE802.1 x, port based network access protocol, for the purpose of : |
| (1) | Authentication protocol |
| (2) | Generating Master Session Key (MSK) |
| (3) | Both Authentication protocol and Generating Master Session Key (MSK) |
| (4) | Neither Authentication protocol nor Generating Master Session Key (MSK) |
| Correct Answer: Both Authentication protocol and Generating Master Session Key (MSK) | |
| Q 53: | In tunnel mode, IPSec protect : |
| (1) | Entire packet |
| (2) | IP header |
| (3) | IP Payload |
| (4) | None of the above |
| Correct Answer: Entire packet | |
| Q 54: | The IEEE standard for Token Bus Protocol is |
| (1) | IEEE 802.2 |
| (2) | IEEE 802.3 |
| (3) | IEEE 802.4 |
| (4) | IEEE 802.5 |
| Correct Answer: IEEE 802.4 | |
| Q 55: | Which Protocol is not correspond to Application layer : |
| (1) | DNS |
| (2) | FTP |
| (3) | SMTP |
| (4) | RPC |
| Correct Answer: RPC | |
| Q 56: | For an ALOHA system using a 9600 bps channel for sending 120-bit long packets the possible throughput is : |
| (1) | 10 pkts per second |
| (2) | 14 pkts per second |
| (3) | 20 pkts per second |
| (4) | 24 pkts per second |
| Correct Answer: 14 pkts per second | |
| Q 57: | The shortest frame in HDLC protocol is usually the ............. frame. |
| (1) | management |
| (2) | supervisory |
| (3) | information |
| (4) | None of the above |
| Correct Answer: supervisory | |
| Q 58: | In TCP/IP, network layer and transport layer provides .................... Services respectively. |
| (1) | Only Connectionless, Both Connectionless and Connection Oriented |
| (2) | Both Connectionless and Connection Oriented, Only Connectionless |
| (3) | Connectionless, Connection Oriented |
| (4) | Connection Oriented, Connectionless |
| Correct Answer: Only Connectionless, Both Connectionless and Connection Oriented | |
| Q 59: | In 100BaseFX, maximum distance between a station and a hub is limited to ................. |
| (1) | 100 mtrs. |
| (2) | 100 mtrs. |
| (3) | 2000 mtrs. |
| (4) | 10000 mtrs. |
| Correct Answer: 2000 mtrs. | |
| Q 60: | Which of the following statement is correct : |
| (1) | HTML have open and close ended tags |
| (2) | HTML have only open ended tags |
| (3) | HTML have only close ended tags |
| (4) | HTML neither have open nor close ended tags |
| Correct Answer: HTML have open and close ended tags | |
| Q 61: | Consider the network with subnet mask 152.208.0.0/13. Determine the address of the last host in this network. |
| (1) | 152.223.255.254 |
| (2) | 152.215.254.254 |
| (3) | 152.215.255.255 |
| (4) | 152.215.255.254 |
| Correct Answer: 152.215.255.254 | |
| Q 62: | Assume 10 devices are arranged in a mesh topology. How many cables are needed? How many ports are needed for each device? |
| (1) | 45, 8 |
| (2) | 90, 9 |
| (3) | 45, 9 |
| (4) | 45, 106 |
| Correct Answer: 45, 9 | |
| Q 63: | For sliding window of size n-1 (n sequence numbers) there can be maximum of ................ frames sent nut unacknowledged. |
| (1) | 0 |
| (2) | n - 1 |
| (3) | n |
| (4) | n + 1 |
| Correct Answer: n - 1 | |
| Q 64: | If there are 32 segments, each of size 1 K byte, then the logical address should have |
| (1) | 13 bits |
| (2) | 14 bits |
| (3) | 15 bits |
| (4) | 16 bits |
| Correct Answer: 15 bits | |
| Q 65: | ICMP (internet control message protocol) is |
| (1) | A protocol that handles error and control messages |
| (2) | A protocol used to monitor computers |
| (3) | Both (a) and (b) |
| (4) | None of the above |
| Correct Answer: A protocol that handles error and control messages | |
| Q 66: | The .................... layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to the next. |
| (1) | Physical |
| (2) | Data link |
| (3) | Transport |
| (4) | None of the above |
| Correct Answer: Data link | |
| Q 67: | In TCP, a SYN segment consumes .................... sequence number (s) |
| (1) | No |
| (2) | One |
| (3) | Two |
| (4) | None of the choices is correct |
| Correct Answer: No | |
| Q 68: | What is bit size of IPv6 addresses? |
| (1) | 16 bits |
| (2) | 32 bits |
| (3) | 64 bits |
| (4) | 128 bits |
| Correct Answer: 128 bits | |
| Q 69: | Layer-1 of the OSI model is? |
| (1) | Link Layer |
| (2) | Physical Layer |
| (3) | Presentation Layer |
| (4) | Session Layer |
| Correct Answer: Physical Layer | |
| Q 70: | In a token ring network the transmission speed is 107 bps and the propagation speed is 200 meters/ms. The 1-bit delay in this network is equivalent to: |
| (1) | 500 meters of cable |
| (2) | 200 meters of cable |
| (3) | 20 meters of cable |
| (4) | 50 meters of cable |
| Correct Answer: 20 meters of cable | |
| Q 71: | दिये गये चित्र में क्रमशः कितने त्रिभुज और कितने वर्ग हैं ? |
| (1) | 28,5 |
| (2) | 24. 4 |
| (3) | 28, 4 |
| (4) | 24, 5 |
| Correct Answer: 28,5 | |
| Q 72: | अंक 9 के विपरीत कौन सा अंक होगा ?
|
| (1) | 3 |
| (2) | 4 |
| (3) | 6 |
| (4) | 1 |
| Correct Answer: 4 | |
| Q 73: | दिये गये कथन और निष्कर्ष पर विचार करें और उत्तर दीजिए A यदि केवल निष्कर्ष 1 सत्य है। B यदि केवल निष्कर्ष 2 सत्य है। C यदि न तो निष्कर्ष 1 और न ही निष्कर्ष 2 सत्य है। D यदि दोनों निष्कर्ष 1 और 2 सत्य है। कथन: A > B > C < D , C = E > G निष्कर्ष 1. D > E 2. B > E |
| (1) | A |
| (2) | B |
| (3) | C |
| (4) | D |
| Correct Answer: D | |
| Q 74: | एक स्कूल में हमेशा होगा |
| (1) | पुस्तकालय |
| (2) | भवन |
| (3) | अध्यापक |
| (4) | प्रधानाचार्य |
| Correct Answer: अध्यापक | |
| Q 75: | 6 वर्ष पहले अजय की आयु, विजय की आयु से 18 वर्ष अधिक थी। यदि उनकी वर्तमान आयु का कुल योग 30 वर्ष हो तो 6 वर्ष पूर्व अजय की आयु कितनी होगी ? |
| (1) | 16 |
| (2) | 18 |
| (3) | 20 |
| (4) | 22 |
| Correct Answer: 18 | |
| Q 76: | यदि घड़ी में 8 : 30 का समय हो रहा हो तो घण्टे और मिनट की सुई के बीच का कोण कितना होगा ? |
| (1) | 15 डिग्री |
| (2) | 35 डिग्री |
| (3) | 45 डिग्री |
| (4) | 75 डिग्री |
| Correct Answer: 75 डिग्री | |
| Q 77: | कथन : कुछ फल सब्जियां हैं। कुछ सब्जियां खाद्य नहीं हैं। निष्कर्ष 1. कुछ फल खाद्य नहीं हैं। 2. कुछ सब्जियां फल हैं। उत्तर A दीजिए यदि निष्कर्ष 1 और 2 दोनों सही नहीं हैं। उत्तर B दीजिए यदि केवल निष्कर्ष 2 सही है। उत्तर C दीजिए यदि निष्कर्ष 1 और 2 दोनों सही हैं। उत्तर D दीजिए यदि केवल निष्कर्ष 1 सही है। |
| (1) | A |
| (2) | B |
| (3) | C |
| (4) | D |
| Correct Answer: B | |
| Q 78: | प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह के स्थान पर सही उत्तर आकृति का चयन करें।
|
| (1) | a |
| (2) | b |
| (3) | c |
| (4) | d |
| Correct Answer: d | |
| Q 79: | यदि किसी कूट भाषा में BADMINTON को CBFOLQXSS लिखा जाता है तो उसी कूट भाषा में FOOTBALLS को किस प्रकार लिखेंगे ? |
| (1) | GPPVECPQX |
| (2) | GPQVEDPPX |
| (3) | EPQWEEPPX |
| (4) | GPQVEDPQX |
| Correct Answer: GPQVEDPPX | |
| Q 80: | नगर D, नगर M के पश्चिम में है। नगर R, नगर D के दक्षिण में हैं। यदि नगर K, नगर R के पूर्व में है, तो नगर K, नगर D के किस ओर होगा ? |
| (1) | दक्षिण – पूर्व |
| (2) | उत्तर – पूर्व |
| (3) | दक्षिण |
| (4) | पश्चिम |
| Correct Answer: दक्षिण – पूर्व | |
| Q 81: |
विजय सिंह पथिक का मूल नाम क्या था? |
| (1) | रामदास |
| (2) | मूलशंकर |
| (3) | नरेंद्र नाथ |
| (4) | भूपसिंह |
| Correct Answer: भूपसिंह | |
| Q 82: |
घटियाला अभिलेख से सम्बन्धित कथनों में असत्य |
| (1) | अभिलेख में प्रतिहार शासक हरिशचन्द्र एवं उसके कराओं का विवरण है। |
| (2) | अभिलेख में नागभट्ट प्रथम के राजधानी को मंडोर में स्थानांतरित करने का विवरण है। |
| (3) | अभिलेख में 'मग' जातीय के ब्राह्मणों का उल्लेख है। |
| (4) | यह अभिलेख चार अभिलेखीय लेखों का समूह है। |
| Correct Answer: यह अभिलेख चार अभिलेखीय लेखों का समूह है। | |
| Q 83: |
1857 की क्रांति के समय मेजर स्पोटिसवुड तथा कर्नल न्यूवारी की हत्या किस छावनी में की गयी धी- |
| (1) | नीमच |
| (2) | ब्यावर |
| (3) | नसीराबाद |
| (4) | खेरवाड़ा |
| Correct Answer: नसीराबाद | |
| Q 84: |
1945-46 में अखिल भारतीय राज्य जनता सम्मेलन (AISPC) किस स्थान पर आयोजित किया था जिसमें यह कहा गया था कि केवल उन राज्यों या राज्यों के समूहों को जिनकी न्यूनतम जनसंख्या पचास लाख और राजस्ब तीन करोड़ रुपये या अधिक का है, को ही स्वतंत्र और संधीय भारत में स्वतंत्र इकाई का दर्जा दिया जाना चाहिए? |
| (1) | उदयपुर |
| (2) | जयपुर |
| (3) | बीकानेर |
| (4) | जोधपुर |
| Correct Answer: उदयपुर | |
| Q 85: | राजस्थान के किस क्षेत्र में 'पनढारी मोदक' प्रसिद्ध है- |
| (1) | जोधपुर |
| (2) | नाथद्वारा |
| (3) | बीकानेर |
| (4) | जयपुर |
| Correct Answer: बीकानेर | |
| Q 86: | संस्थान एवं स्थापना के युग्म में सही है |
| (1) | राजस्थान साहित्य अकादमी 1969 |
| (2) | राजस्थान संगीत नाटक अकादमी 1957 |
| (3) | राजस्थान ब्रज भाषा अकादमी 1982 |
| (4) | राजस्थान हिंदी ग्रन्थ अकादमी 1980 |
| Correct Answer: राजस्थान संगीत नाटक अकादमी 1957 | |
| Q 87: | जयपुर नगर की स्थापना के समय मुख्य वास्तुकार (जयपुर नगर का नक्षा बनाया) एवं नगर नियोजम कौन था? |
| (1) | मंडन मिश्र |
| (2) | विद्याधर भट्टाचार्य |
| (3) | राजवल्लभ |
| (4) | लालचंद |
| Correct Answer: विद्याधर भट्टाचार्य | |
| Q 88: | किस शासक के शासनकाल में राजस्थान के मेवाड़ क्षेत्र में खुमाण रासो महाकाव्य की रचना हुई थी? |
| (1) | महाराणा प्रताप |
| (2) | राणा सांगा |
| (3) | राणा खुमाण |
| (4) | राणा कुम्भा |
| Correct Answer: राणा खुमाण | |
| Q 89: | कौनसे वृक्ष से चारकोल बनाया जाता है |
| (1) | बबूल |
| (2) | पीपल |
| (3) | धौंकडा |
| (4) | पलाश |
| Correct Answer: बबूल | |
| Q 90: | राजस्थान में कौनसी एक भूजल ब्लॉक की श्रेणी नहीं है |
| (1) | सुरक्षित |
| (2) | अर्द्धक्रांतिक |
| (3) | अति संदोहित |
| (4) | न्यून संदोहित |
| Correct Answer: न्यून संदोहित | |
| Q 91: |
1 जनवरी, 2024 को डीआरडीओ ने अपना कौन सा स्थापना दिवस मनाया है |
| (1) | 66वां |
| (2) | 67वां |
| (3) | 65वां |
| (4) | 64वां |
| Correct Answer: 66वां | |
| Q 92: | 75वें गणतंत्र दिवस परेड 2024 में राज्य श्रेणी में सर्वश्रेष्ठ झांकी का पुरस्कार किस राज्य को मिला है |
| (1) | उड़ीसा |
| (2) | छत्तीसगढ़ |
| (3) | उत्तराखंड |
| (4) | असम |
| Correct Answer: उड़ीसा | |
| Q 93: |
हैप्पीनेस इंडेक्स 2024 की रिपोर्ट के अनुसार दुनिया का सबसे खुशहाल देश कौनसा है |
| (1) | फिनलैंड |
| (2) | डेनमार्क |
| (3) | आइसलैंड |
| (4) | स्वीडन |
| Correct Answer: फिनलैंड | |
| Q 94: | हाल ही में राजस्थान में मनरेगा के तहत अकुशल श्रमिकों की प्रतिदिन मजदूरी दर निर्धारित की गई है |
| (1) | 266 |
| (2) | 285 |
| (3) | 306 |
| (4) | 412 |
| Correct Answer: 266 | |
| Q 95: |
भारतीय वायु सेना ने पहली बार स्वदेशी मोबाइल अस्पताल 'भीष्म' का परीक्षण किस शहर में किया है |
| (1) | कोलकाता |
| (2) | मुंबई |
| (3) | आगरा |
| (4) | अहमदाबाद |
| Correct Answer: आगरा | |
| Q 96: |
दुनिया की पहली सीएनजी मोटरसाइकिल जून 2024 में किसने लॉन्च की है |
| (1) | हीरो मोटोकॉर्प |
| (2) | टीवीएस मोटर कंपनी |
| (3) | बजाज ऑटो |
| (4) | सुजुकी मोटरसाइकिल |
| Correct Answer: बजाज ऑटो | |
| Q 97: |
प्लास्टिक वेस्ट से सड़क बनाने वाला देश का दूसरा स्टेशन बना है |
| (1) | जयपुर मिलिट्री स्टेशन |
| (2) | कोझिकोड स्टेशन |
| (3) | अयोध्या राम जन्म भूमि स्टेशन |
| (4) | नारंगी सैन्य स्टेशन |
| Correct Answer: जयपुर मिलिट्री स्टेशन | |
| Q 98: |
दुनिया का पहला एशियाई राजा गिद्ध संरक्षण और प्रजनन केंद्र कहाँ प्रारंभ होगा |
| (1) | पश्चिम बंगाल |
| (2) | ओडिशा |
| (3) | मध्य प्रदेश |
| (4) | उत्तर प्रदेश |
| Correct Answer: उत्तर प्रदेश | |
| Q 99: |
प्रदेश के किस खान को जिओ पर्यटन स्थल के रूप में विकसित किया जाएगा |
| (1) | मांडल, भीलवाड़ा |
| (2) | झामर कोटडा, उदयपुर |
| (3) | जावर, उदयपुर |
| (4) | कोलिहान खदान, नीम का थाना |
| Correct Answer: जावर, उदयपुर | |
| Q 100: |
प्रदेश में वर्ष 2023-24 में अग्रिम अनुमान के अनुसार खाद्यान्न का कुल उत्पादन होने की संभावना है |
| (1) | 245.01 लाख मैट्रिक टन |
| (2) | 252.80 लाख मैट्रिक टन |
| (3) | 155.18 लाख मैट्रिक टन |
| (4) | 124.50 लाख मैट्रिक टन |
| Correct Answer: 245.01 लाख मैट्रिक टन | |
