Daily Exam Programmer Paper I

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Q 1:

प्रोफेसर अम्लानंद घोष ने किस वर्ष राजस्थान में कालीबंगा स्थल की पुनः खोज (शोध) की थी

(1) 1952
(2) 1953
(3) 1954
(4) 1955
Correct Answer: 1952
Q 2: निम्न में से कौनसा प्रतिहारो का इतिहास बताता है
(1) मंडोर शिलालेख
(2) नंद्स्युपा स्तम्भ शिलालेख
(3) घोसुण्डी शिलालेख
(4) बिजोलिया शिलालेख
Correct Answer: मंडोर शिलालेख
Q 3: नाथद्वारा में श्रीनाथ जी की मूर्ति निम्न में से किसने स्थापित करवाई थी
(1) महाराणा कुंभा
(2) राज सिंह प्रथम
(3) सुरजन हाड़ा
(4) जय सिंह
Correct Answer: राज सिंह प्रथम
Q 4: मतीरे की राड़ नमक युद्ध कब लड़ा गया
(1) 1640
(2) 1644
(3) 1648
(4) 1650
Correct Answer: 1644
Q 5: बेगूं किसान आन्दोलन के नेता जो शहीद हुए
(1) नानक जी
(2) कृपा जी
(3) लादूलाल जी
(4) घासी राम जी
Correct Answer: कृपा जी
Q 6:

दोहरी रक्षा - प्राचीर के साक्ष्य राजस्थान की किस सभ्यता से प्राप्त हुए है

(1) बालाथल सभ्यता
(2) ओझियाना सभ्यता
(3) कालीबंगा सभ्यता
(4) गणेश्वर सभ्यता
Correct Answer: कालीबंगा सभ्यता
Q 7: राव जोधा ने किस वर्ष जोधपुर नगर की स्थपाना की?
(1) 1113
(2) 1459
(3) 1539
(4) 1926
Correct Answer: 1459
Q 8:

शास्त्रीय संगीत पर रचना राधा गोविन्द संगीत सार के रचयिता थे

(1) देवर्षि ब्रजपाल भट्ट
(2) चतुर लाल सैन
(3) देवर्षि भट्ट द्वारकानाथ
(4) हीरानंद व्यास
Correct Answer: देवर्षि ब्रजपाल भट्ट
Q 9: मेवाड़ प्रजामंडल का अस्थायी कार्यालय कहाँ स्थापित किया गया था
(1) चित्तोडगढ
(2) उदयपुर
(3) अजमेर
(4) भीलवाड़ा
Correct Answer: अजमेर
Q 10: जुलाई 1921 में मोतीलाल तेजावत ने किस स्थान से भील आन्दोलन छेड़ा ?
(1) झाड़ोल
(2) गोगुन्दा
(3) कोटड़ा
(4) सिरोही
Correct Answer: झाड़ोल
Q 11: वर्ष 2011 में राजस्थान में ग्रामीण जनसँख्या का प्रतिशत था
(1) 75.1
(2) 64.4
(3) 81.9
(4) 70.2
Correct Answer: 75.1
Q 12: राजस्थान में विद्युत प्रसारण निगम लिमिटेड की कितनी कंपनी है
(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
Correct Answer: 1
Q 13: रेलवे की छोटी लाइन (नेरो गेज) राजस्थान के किस जिले में है
(1) अलवर
(2) धोलपुर
(3) डूंगरपुर
(4) उदयपुर
Correct Answer: धोलपुर
Q 14: राजस्थान विधानसभा को विघटित करने का अधिकार किसे है
(1) राज्यपाल
(2) मुख्यमंत्री
(3) विधानसभा अध्यक्ष
(4) लोकायुक्त
Correct Answer: राज्यपाल
Q 15: राजस्थान की प्रथम विधानसभा के अध्यक्ष कौन थे
(1) शांतिलाल चपलोत
(2) नरोत्तमलाल जोशी
(3) रामनिवास मिर्धा
(4) श्रीमती सुमित्रा सिंह
Correct Answer: नरोत्तमलाल जोशी
Q 16:

अरावली पर्वतमाला के कौनसे भाग में सर्वाधिक अन्तराल विद्यमान है

(1) उत्तरी-मध्यवर्ती
(2) उत्तर-दक्षिणी
(3) पूर्वी-मध्यवर्ती
(4) दक्षिणी-पश्चिमी
Correct Answer: उत्तरी-मध्यवर्ती
Q 17: अजमेर की अन्नासागर झील में किस नदी का पानी आता है
(1) बाँडी
(2) बेडच
(3) साबी
(4) कान्कनी
Correct Answer: बाँडी
Q 18: राजस्थान में 50% से अधिक वन क्षेत्र किस श्रेणी में सम्मिलित है
(1) आरक्षित
(2) सुरक्षित
(3) अवर्गीकृत
(4) खुला वन
Correct Answer: सुरक्षित
Q 19: बस्सी वन्य जीव अभयारण्य किस जिले में है
(1) टोंक
(2) जयपुर
(3) चित्तोडगढ
(4) जालौर
Correct Answer: चित्तोडगढ
Q 20: राजस्थान का मेनचेस्टर कहा जाता है
(1) कोटा
(2) पाली
(3) ब्यावर
(4) भीलवाडा
Correct Answer: भीलवाडा
Q 21:

Tables derived from the ER-Diagram

(1) Are totally normalised
(2) Can be further denormalised
(3) May have multi-valued attributes
(4) Are always in 1NF
Correct Answer: Are always in 1NF
Q 22: Which is a DCL command?
(1) Grant
(2) Commit
(3) Update
(4) Rollback
Correct Answer: Grant
Q 23: In a stored procedure, when specifying a string parameter you should use which one of these data types?
(1) CHAR
(2) VARCHAR2
(3) TEXT
(4) REAL
Correct Answer: VARCHAR2
Q 24: Which is correct statement for Triggers?
(1) To maintain views
(2) To execute action automatically whenever an event occurs.
(3) To implement business rules
(4) All of these
Correct Answer: All of these
Q 25: Fifth normal form is also called
(1) Protect-join normal form
(2) Process-join normal form
(3) Project-join normal form
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Project-join normal form
Q 26: OLAP stands for
(1) Online analytical processing
(2) Online analysis processing
(3) Online transaction processing
(4) Online aggregate processing
Correct Answer: Online analytical processing
Q 27: If every non-key attribute is functionally dependent on the primary key then the relation will be in :
(1) First normal form
(2) Second normal form
(3) Third normal form
(4) Fourth normal form
Correct Answer: Third normal form
Q 28: What is the output of the following query SELECT TRUNC(5234.5678,-2) FORM DUAL;?
(1) 5200
(2) 5230
(3) 5230.00
(4) 5234.5600
Correct Answer: 5200
Q 29:

In UNIX systems the user can change the access rights of the file to different user by using

(1) PID
(2) Chmod
(3) Head
(4) Tail
Correct Answer: Chmod
Q 30: Which one of the following problems can occur due to introducing locks in a concurrent transaction scenario?
(1) Information overwrite
(2) Loss of information
(3) Deadlock
(4) Lack of integrity
Correct Answer: Deadlock
Q 31: A relational model which allows non-atomic domains is
(1) Nested relational data
(2) Non-atomic data model
(3) Hierarchical data model
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Nested relational data
Q 32: When user create views, they are part of which schema?
(1) Virtual
(2) Conceptual
(3) External
(4) Internal
Correct Answer: External
Q 33: A stored program that is attached to a table or a view is called?
(1) Embedded SELECT Statement
(2) Trigger
(3) System file
(4) Virtual file
Correct Answer: Trigger
Q 34: A Trigger can be defined on how many tables?
(1) Only One
(2) One of More
(3) One to Three
(4) Any number of Table
Correct Answer: Only One
Q 35: Which statement can you use in embedded SQL to provide your host program with exception and warning information?
(1) WHENEVER
(2) INTO
(3) CAST
(4) WHENIT
Correct Answer: WHENEVER
Q 36: The concept of locking cannot be used to solve the problem of
(1) Lost update
(2) Uncommitted Dependency
(3) Incosistent Data
(4) Deadlock
Correct Answer: Deadlock
Q 37: A data dictionary is a special file that contains:
(1) The name of all fields in all files.
(2) The wodth of all fields in all files.
(3) The data type of all fields in all files.
(4) All of the above
Correct Answer: All of the above
Q 38: The natural join is equals to :
(1) Cartesian Product
(2) Combination of Union and Cartesian products
(3) Combination of Selections and Cartesian product
(4) Combination of Projection and Cartesian product
Correct Answer: Combination of Projection and Cartesian product
Q 39: The process of managing simultaneous operations on the database without having them interfere with one another is 
(1) Serializability
(2) Recoverability
(3) Concurrency control
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Concurrency control
Q 40: A named set of SQL statements that are considered when a data modification occurs are called
(1) Stored procedures
(2) Triggers
(3) Packages
(4) Trapdoors
Correct Answer: Triggers
Q 41: A super key that does not contain a subset of attributes that is itself a super key is called a
(1) Candidate key
(2) Primary key
(3) Super key
(4) Secondary key
Correct Answer: Candidate key
Q 42: A unit of storage that can store one or more records on a hash file organization is denoted as
(1) Buckets
(2) Disk pages
(3) Blocks
(4) Nodes
Correct Answer: Buckets
Q 43: A ___________ attribute is an attribute that can be further subdivided to yield additional attributes.
(1) Composite
(2) Simple
(3) Single-valued
(4) Multi-valued
Correct Answer: Composite
Q 44:

Which of the following concept is applicable with respect to 2NF?

(1) Full functional dependency
(2) Partial dependency
(3) Transitive dependency
(4) Non-transitive dependency
Correct Answer: Full functional dependency
Q 45: Which database structure consist of a set of two or more related tables with a minimum of one shared filed between them?
(1) Hierarchical
(2) Network
(3) Object-oriented
(4) Relational
Correct Answer: Relational
Q 46: Which of the following keyword is used with Data Control Language (DCL) statements?
(1) SELECT
(2) INSERT
(3) DELETE
(4) GRANT
Correct Answer: GRANT
Q 47: What is SQL?
(1) A first-generation language
(2) The standard data manipulation language for relational DBMS
(3) The query language used for networked database
(4) Never used for reports
Correct Answer: The standard data manipulation language for relational DBMS
Q 48: A relation that has no partial dependencies is in __________ normal form.
(1) First
(2) Second
(3) Third
(4) Fourth
Correct Answer: Second
Q 49: A foreign key must
(1) Be numeric
(2) Be unique
(3) Be defined in all tables within the database
(4) Match the field value of a primary key in a related table
Correct Answer: Match the field value of a primary key in a related table
Q 50: This key uniquely identifies each record-
(1) Unique key
(2) key record
(3) field name
(4) primary key
Correct Answer: primary key
Q 51: Which of the following is not a component of relational database?
(1) Table
(2) Attribute
(3) Hierarchy
(4) Entity
Correct Answer: Hierarchy
Q 52: Which of the following is record based logical model?
(1) Network Model
(2) E-R Model
(3) Object oriented model
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Network Model
Q 53: The .................... operator is used to compare a value to a list of literals values that have been specified.
(1) ANY
(2) BETWEEN
(3) IN
(4) ALL
Correct Answer: IN
Q 54: Analysis of large database to retrieve information is called?
(1) OLDP
(2) OLAP
(3) OLTP
(4) TLPP
Correct Answer: OLAP
Q 55: To discard all pending data changes
(1) LOCK
(2) ROLLBACK
(3) SAVEPOINT
(4) COMMIT
Correct Answer: ROLLBACK
Q 56:

The E-R model is expressed in term of 

I. Entities

II. The relationship among entities.

III. The attributes of the entities.

IV. Functional relationship.

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, IV
(3) II, III, IV
(4) I, II, III
Correct Answer: I, II, III
Q 57:

Find the SQL statement below that is equal to the following :

SELECT NAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE STATE ='VA'; 

(1) SELECT NAME IS CUSTOMER WHERE STATE IN ('VA);
(2) SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = 'V.A;
(3) SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE =V;
(4) SELECT NAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE STATE IN ('VA);
Correct Answer: SELECT NAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE STATE IN ('VA);
Q 58:

Which of the following attributes can be called multivalues attributes in DBMS?

(1) Birth Date
(2) Age
(3) Gender
(4) College Degree
Correct Answer: College Degree
Q 59: 5NF is designed to cope with:
(1) Transitive dependency
(2) Join dependency
(3) Multi valued dependency
(4) All of these
Correct Answer: Join dependency
Q 60:

The Following represents the dependent entity from an Entity Relationship diagram.

Select the characteristics which are represented by the above diagram.

(1) BirthDate is a derived attribute
(2) Address is a multivalued attribute
(3) Gender is an atomic attribute
(4) Name is a key attribute
Correct Answer: Name is a key attribute
Q 61:

Given the following set of functional dependencies (FDs):

  1. A→BA \rightarrow B
  2. C→DC \rightarrow D
  3. A,C→EA, C \rightarrow E

What is the closure of the attribute set {A,C}+\{A, C\}^+{A,C}+?

(1) {A,B,C}
(2) {A,B,C,D,E}
(3) {C,D,E,F,G}
(4) {A,B,E,F,G}
Correct Answer: {A,B,C,D,E}
Q 62: Consider a file of 16384 records. Each record is 32 bytes long and its key field is of size 6 bytes. The file is ordered on a non-key field, and the file organization is unspanned. The file is stored in a file system with block size 1024 bytes, and the size of a block pointer is 10 bytes. If the secondary index is built on the key field of the file, and a multilevel index scheme is used to level and second-level blocks in the multilevel index are respectively
(1) 512 and 5
(2) 128 and 6
(3) 256 and 4
(4) 8 and 0
Correct Answer: 256 and 4
Q 63:

There are five records in a database :

NameAgeOccupationCategory
Rama27CONGA
ABHI22ENGA
JAMNA28DOCB
MAYA32SERD
DEV24MUSC

There is an index file associated with this and it contains the values 1,3,2,5 and 4. Which one of the fields is the index built from?

(1) Age
(2) Category
(3) Occupation
(4) Name
Correct Answer: Occupation
Q 64:

Consider the following SQL query :

SELECT Distinct S.name

FROM S

WHERE Exists SP.P#

(SELECT * From SP

WHERE SP.S#=S.S# AND SP.P# = 'P2');

The above query represents which of the following?

(1) Get supplier names for suppliers who supply part P2.
(2) Get supplier names whose supply part P2 is null.
(3) Get supplier names who doesn't supply part P2.
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Get supplier names for suppliers who supply part P2.
Q 65:

Which indices search key defines the sequential order of file and which indices search key specifies an order different from sequential order of file?

(1) Primary, Secondary
(2) Clustering, Secondary
(3) Non-Clustering, Secondary
(4) Clustering, Primary
Correct Answer: Primary, Secondary
Q 66: If every non-key attribute is functionally dependent on the primary key, then the relation will be in
(1) first normal form
(2) fourth normal form
(3) third normal form
(4) second normal form
Correct Answer: third normal form
Q 67: HTTPS stand for
(1) Hyper Test Transmission Protocol
(2) High Tension Transmission Protocol
(3) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(4) Hyper Top Text Protocol
Correct Answer: Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
Q 68: Which of the following authentications is best suited for a corporate network?
(1) Windows
(2) Form
(3) User
(4) All
Correct Answer: Form
Q 69: During an FTP session the data connection may be opened __________
(1) only once
(2) only two time
(3) as many times as needed
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: as many times as needed
Q 70: DNS is the abbreviation of
(1) Dynamic Name System
(2) Domain Network System
(3) Domain Name System
(4) Dynamic Network Serivces
Correct Answer: Domain Name System
Q 71: What is the standard subnet mask for a class A address?
(1) 255.255.0.0
(2) 255.255.255.0
(3) 255.255.255.255
(4) 255.0.0.0
Correct Answer: 255.0.0.0
Q 72: ISDN stands for :
(1) Internet Digital Service Netowk
(2) Integrated Service Digital Network
(3) Integrated System Digital Network
(4) Integrated Service Digital Naming
Correct Answer: Integrated Service Digital Network
Q 73: What is function of router?
(1) Packet filtering
(2) Path selection
(3) Packet switching
(4) All of these
Correct Answer: All of these
Q 74: While opening a TCP connection, the initial sequence number is to be derived using a time-of day (ToD) clock that keeps running even when the host is down. The low order 32 bits of the counter of the (ToD) clock is to be used for the initial sequence numbers. The clock counters increments once per millisecond. The maximum packet lifetime is given to be 64s. Which one of the choices given below is closest to the minimum permissible rate at which sequence numbers used for packets of a connection can increase?
(1) 0.015/s
(2) 0.064/s
(3) 0.135/s
(4) 0.327/s
Correct Answer: 0.015/s
Q 75: In a packet switching network; if the message size is 48 byte and each packet contains a header of 3 bytes. If 24 packet are required to transmit the message, the packet size is.
(1) 2 byte
(2) 1 byte
(3) 4 byte
(4) 5 byte
Correct Answer: 5 byte
Q 76: Suppose we want to download text documents at the rate of 100 pages per second. Assume that a page consists of an average of 24 lines with 80 characters in each line. What is the required bit rate of the channel?
(1) 192 kbps
(2) 512 kbps
(3) 1.248 Mbps
(4) 1.536 Mbps
Correct Answer: 1.536 Mbps
Q 77:

How many 8-bit characters can be transmitted per second over a 9600 baud serial communication link using a synchronous mode of transmission with one start bit, eight data bits, and one parity bit?

(1) 600
(2) 800
(3) 876
(4) 1200
Correct Answer: 800
Q 78: Assuming that for a given network layer implementation, connection establishment overhead is 100 bytes and disconnection overhead is 28 bytes. What would be the minimum size of the packet the transport layer needs to keep up, if it wishes to implement a datagram service above the network needs to keep its overhead to a minimum of 12.5%. (Ignore transport layer overhead)
(1) 512 bytes
(2) 768 bytes
(3) 1152 bytes
(4) 1024 bytes
Correct Answer: 1024 bytes
Q 79: Which class of IP address has the most host addresses available by default?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) A and B
Correct Answer: A
Q 80: Which protocol does Ping use?
(1) TCP
(2) ARP
(3) ICMP
(4) BootP
Correct Answer: ICMP
Q 81: You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information, Which protocol will you use to accomplish this?
(1) SMTP
(2) SNMP
(3) DHCP
(4) ARP
Correct Answer: DHCP
Q 82: What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model?
(1) Application
(2) Host-to-Host
(3) Internet
(4) Network Access
Correct Answer: Host-to-Host
Q 83: What is the address range of a Class B network address in binary?
(1) 01xxxxxx
(2) 0xxxxxxx
(3) 10xxxxxx
(4) 110xxxxx
Correct Answer: 10xxxxxx
Q 84: Which layer 4 protocol is used for a Telnet connection?
(1) IP
(2) TCP
(3) TCP/IP
(4) UDP
Correct Answer: TCP
Q 85:

Which two of the following are true regarding the distance-vector and link-state routing protocols?

1. Link state sends its complete routing table out all active interfaces on periodic time intervals.

2. Distance vector sends its complete routing table out all active interfaces on periodic time intervals

3. Link state sends updates containing the state of its own links to all routers in the internetwork

4. Distance vector sends updates containing the state of its own links to all routers in the internetwork.

(1) 1 onlu
(2) 3 only
(3) 2 and 3 only
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: 2 and 3 only
Q 86: Which of the following is true when describing an anycast address? 
(1) Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface.
(2) Packets are delivered to all interfaces identified by the address. This is also called one-to-many addresses.
(3) This address identifies multiple interfaces and the anycast packet is only delivered to one address. This address can also be called one-to-one-of-many.
(4) These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
Correct Answer: This address identifies multiple interfaces and the anycast packet is only delivered to one address. This address can also be called one-to-one-of-many.
Q 87:

Which are considered the method of NAT?

1. Static

2. IP NAT pool

3. Dynamic

4. NAT double-translation 

5. Overload

(1) 1 and 6
(2) 3 only
(3) 1, 3 and 5
(4) All of these
Correct Answer: 1, 3 and 5
Q 88: What is the maximum distance running the lowest data rate  for 802.11b?
(1) About 100 feet
(2) About 175 feet
(3) About 300 feet
(4) About 350 feet
Correct Answer: About 350 feet
Q 89: Class C lies between -
(1) 0-127
(2) 128-191
(3) 192-233
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: 192-233
Q 90: Find the odd one out.
(1) Coaxial cable
(2) Microwaves
(3) Optical fiber
(4) Twisted pair wire
Correct Answer: Microwaves
Q 91: What part of 192.168.10.51 s the Network ID, assuming a default subnet mask?
(1) 192.168.10
(2) 192
(3) 51
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: 192.168.10
Q 92:

DHCP is used for -

(1) IPv4
(2) IPv6
(3) Both
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Both
Q 93: How many bits are in ethernet address?
(1) 32 bits
(2) 16 bits
(3) 64 bits
(4) 48 bits
Correct Answer: 48 bits
Q 94: Electromagnetic waves ranging in frequencies between 3 kHz and 1GHz are called ?
(1) High frequency
(2) Infrared
(3) Microwaves
(4) Radio waves
Correct Answer: Radio waves
Q 95: Which is not a network edge device?
(1) Smart phone
(2) Switch
(3) PC
(4) Server
Correct Answer: Switch
Q 96: RJ45 UTP cable has ................. cables.
(1) 2 Pair
(2) 4 Pair
(3) 3 Pair
(4) 5 Pair
Correct Answer: 4 Pair
Q 97: The speed of modem is measured in which unit?
(1) BPS
(2) GPS
(3) CPS
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: BPS
Q 98: DNS stand for -
(1) Domain Number System
(2) Domain Name System
(3) Data Name System
(4) None of the above
Correct Answer: Domain Name System
Q 99: The IEEE 802.11a, uses ....................
(1) FHSS
(2) DSSS
(3) OFDM
(4) Either (a) or (b)
Correct Answer: OFDM
Q 100: Four routers  have to be interconnected in a point-to-point Network. Each pair of root us may connect by a high-speed line, a medium speed line or a low speed line. Find the total number or topologies.
(1) 12
(2) 81
(3) 48
(4) 729
Correct Answer: 729